The entire Muslim world claims that Ishmael was offered as a sacrifice by Abraham, rather than Isaac.
The entire Muslim world claim that Jesus never died on the cross, let alone was resurrected from the dead.
The entire Muslim world believes that women are inferior to men.
The entire Muslim world believes that pork will damn you to hell.
The entire Muslim world believes that Jesus will come back and force everyone to be Muslim.
And the Shia Muslim world believes they are Gog and Magog, and will win the battle for Jerusalem.
Now.....All of this is based on a book written at least 600 years after Jesus’ death and resurrection.
So why should believe the modern doubters, who come up with questions, a little less than 2,000 years, after the witnesses testified to what they saw in person?
I believe these authors/professors are a bunch of losers. I believe and have a strong, unwavering faith in that. I say unto thee.
Also, why does the media say muslims use a word with latin roots “infidel” to describe non-muslims. My understanding is that the word “infidel” is a word the Catholic Church used to describe non-Catholics/Christians? It seems to me we should not be calling our own people infidels (unfaithful) when the word originated to describe Muslims and other non-Catholics/Christians. Wouldn’t non-muslim or an arabic word be more acurate?