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To: phs3

>> Why would the Romans give a tomb, to a man, who in their eyes, was an executed criminal? <<

Uh, they didn’t. The bible is very clear that Joseph of Arimathea received his body back, and laid him in a tomb. The only thing the Romans had to do with it was that they perceived that the disciples would remove him from the tomb and claim he had been risen, so they rolled an enormous stone in front of it, and posted guards.

I do wonder if this was a bureaucratic screw-up by Rome. They certainly could’ve denied Jesus’ body to his followers and saved the expense of the boulder and guard. But perhaps the fact it was a member of the Sanhedrin asking for his body back, someone failed to realize that Jesus had effectively been stripped of his Jewish citizenship during his hearing before Herod; perhaps Pilate hadn’t been aware of WHY Herod was sending Jesus back to him.

(To be clearer: The gospels don’t spell out WHY Herod returned Jesus to Pilate, but if the Jews alleged that Jesus had been born out of wedlock, they could’ve stripped him of his rights as a Jew. Indeed, the skeptics’ claim that the peace between Rome and the Hasmoneans would’ve prevented his crucifixion would be plausible if Jesus were a Jew in good standing; the fact that Jesus would have been perceived of as a bastard by a disbeliever would have been grounds for removing his nominal protection under Herod. Of course, Herod acted subserviently to Rome to prevent Rome from unilaterally rewriting the conditions of Israel’s nominal semi-autonomy, so such protection was largely nominal anyway.)


17 posted on 09/16/2019 10:26:24 AM PDT by dangus
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To: dangus

“they could’ve stripped him of his rights as a Jew. “

Not exactly. He’d be a mamzer, and thus not entitled to be married or serve in a religious function, but other than that he’d be OK.


22 posted on 09/16/2019 11:27:03 AM PDT by MeanWestTexan (Sometimes There Is No Lesser Of Two Evils)
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