But by several more modern statutes these restrictions are still farther taken off: so that all children, born out of the king's ligeance, whose fathers were natural-born subjects, are now natural-born subjects themselves, to all intents and purposes, without any exception; unless their said fathers were attainted, or banished beyond sea, for high treason; or were then in the service of a prince at enmity with Great Britain.Also notice here there is no artificial boundary between statutory and common law assertions of natural born status. The common law feeds into the statutory corpus and fills the gaps, which is sort of how a lot of statutory law comes into being anyway. It's really more of a historical question. When did some emerging pattern of judging cases (common law) get absorbed up into the statutory schema? And what began in the statutory schema in skeletal form, and migrated down to where judges had to fill those gaps with case-based refinements? At some point it becomes a chicken-versus-egg problem.
Available here: http://press-pubs.uchicago.edu/founders/documents/a1_8_4_citizenships1.html
When I say, that an alien is one who is born out of the king's dominions, or allegiance, this also must be understood with some restrictions. The common law indeed stood absolutely so; with only a very few exceptions: so that a particular act of parliament became necessary after the restoration, for the naturalization of children of his majesty's English subjects, born in foreign countries during the late troubles. And this maxim of the law proceeded upon a general principle, that every man owes natural allegiance where he is born, and cannot owe two such allegiances, or serve two masters, at once.
and we all know that no such binding authority exists in US law so we must resort to the historical record which is exactly what the SCOTUS would do.
The fact is, you can not show me anything comparable to what I have provided to support your opinion. My opinion is WELL supported. yours? not so much.
Respectfully. RC1