What, exactly, is the assertion”
I’ve cited what I’ve read in many, many histories of WWII wherein references were made in respect to the use of firebombs.
Do you not understand what a ‘firebomb’ is?
This from #25
In August of 1940, two aircraft were seperated from their formation and wound up lost while evading fighters over England. They jettisoned a negligible amount of bombs over London resulting in little damage.
Do you not understand what a ‘firebomb’ is?
I'm familiar with the term. What I am questioning is the above assertion, and the one made in #74 that the UK originated the targeting of 'civilian centers'. Warsaw predates UK bombing of Germany. Or don't the Poles count?