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Add this to the Battleground Poll's Romney 51/48 in extremely voters and his +15 with Independents.
1 posted on 11/06/2012 6:56:39 AM PST by jmaroneps37
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To: jmaroneps37

How this question is answered is in fact the entire game today.

We shall see.


2 posted on 11/06/2012 7:02:54 AM PST by ConservativeDude
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To: jmaroneps37

From your post to G_d’s inbox... :)


4 posted on 11/06/2012 7:05:17 AM PST by carlo3b (Less Government, more Fiber..)
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To: jmaroneps37

Let’s do the Rasmussen math:

PartyID = R+5.8
Turnout Model = D+2 (could be D+4 but I don’t think so)

Total differential 7.8

Say what? There is no, I repeat no possible explanation for this. Raz is just ignoring the fact that more people call them themselves Republicans than at any time in the history of Rasmussen polling.

And that history includes a unexpected and inexplicable bias that understates GOP turnout and overstates Dem turnout. One would think he would learn from his past mistakes. Not so apparently.


6 posted on 11/06/2012 7:09:01 AM PST by InterceptPoint
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To: jmaroneps37

STORM HEAVEN WITH PRAYERS.


7 posted on 11/06/2012 7:11:28 AM PST by kitkat
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To: jmaroneps37
Rasmussen has Republican Party ID +5.8%

Please!!Please!! Please let this be true!!

9 posted on 11/06/2012 7:16:06 AM PST by RedMonqey (Men who will not suffer to self govern, will suffer under the governance of lesser men.)
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To: jmaroneps37

Please remember that Rasmussen does not use his polling survey results for party affiliation as his base formula. He uses his historic understanding of party affiliation for his base formula. He believes that historic party ID does not easily change. Many freepers have pegged Rasmussen’s basic party ID formula as Dem+3 or Dem+5, depending on who you’re talking to.

Rasmussen then adjusts his basic formula by an internal formula known to him and his organization. I assume that’s where his party affiliation survey gets used, but I can’t prove that. Nor do I know the other things he uses in that internal adjustment.

Just for discussion, though, let’s assume he uses Dem+3 as his basic formula and adjusts it point for point with his party id survey of 5.8%. That would mean that he’s actually saying the electorate is roughly R+2.8 (-3+5.8).

Yesterday, I think I heard on Fox that Ras is using R+1. That could mean the other factors in his formula subtract from the Repub advantage or it could mean that his base formula is D+5 as some have said. That would get us to R+.8, and that would round up to R+1.

I have absolutely no way of proving this; it’s just my opinion.


10 posted on 11/06/2012 7:16:50 AM PST by xzins (Retired Army Chaplain and Proud of It! True supporters of our troops pray for their victory!)
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To: jmaroneps37

how long has Ras known this? you know, you can’t trust anyone in polling. 57-43...Romney


11 posted on 11/06/2012 7:26:22 AM PST by stickywillie (stanley ann went black, & never came back)
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To: jmaroneps37

How will Rasmussen spin this on Fox tonight as the returns show a healthy Romney win?


13 posted on 11/06/2012 7:49:37 AM PST by manic4organic (We won. Get over it.)
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To: jmaroneps37

If more Republicans vote than Democrats, easy Romney victory by around 6%.


14 posted on 11/06/2012 7:56:59 AM PST by DarkSavant
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