I have had this argument several times. I always ask when was wealth distributed the first time?
The wealth was never ‘distributed” the 1st time...it was earned by one and not the other. There were no $$gods deciding winners and losers, contrary to the myths you may have heard.
Does this description make sense to you?
I have tried to refine it many times, you would think people would be horrified at the thoug of one government worker per welfare family - but no one seems to notice
I know there is not LITERALLY one per family, but the EQUIVALENT OF