In the first century, many.
During the second and fourth centuries there were riots and attacks back and forth between the two communities.
After Justinian in the 6th century, the Christians definitively had a large advantage in terms of numbers and government power - the tide had permanently turned.
When the imperial power collapsed in the West, pogroms began to occur intermittently - one of the largest and most infamous in the post-Justinian era were the Rhineland pogroms.
After the 16th century until the 20th they became more an Eastern than a Western phenomenon.
I would point out that many of these attacks in the medieval West were carried out against existing law and by groups that were rebelling against the institutional Church as well as the secular government - and this was due in large part to the way secular governments manipulated their Jewish subjects and encouraged scapegoating them.
America however, while not perfect, has about as good a record on this front as any Western nation can claim.
And this you think supports the notion that Christians have been more tolerate of Jews than Jews have been of Christians?