The “quota program” as I understand it is/was voluntary.
The farmer AGREES to a quota for his farm in exchange for a price support guaranteed by the government for his crop.
After agreeing to the quota, he produced more and said it was for his own consumption.
That’s where the case comes in. Is the quota an absolute limit on his production or can he produce the quota PLUS what he “thinks” his consumption will be, for his own use?
GIVEN the quota program, to begin with, it would have been unenforceable without the decision.
Ok, but the context of this thread is that this quota case helps make the feds case for obamacare.
In a nutshell, I’m claiming it does not. In fact, it looks like it doesn’t have any applicability at all, other than the fact that it falls broadly under the commerce clause.