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To: vladimir998

Is “got it Right” something the Germans possess?


3 posted on 02/26/2012 11:06:51 AM PST by freemarketsfreeminds
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To: freemarketsfreeminds

Sorry guys, I read his use of the apostrophe to show a contraction and not to imply possession. That is, a contraction of the INFORMAL sentence “The German has got it right.”

We probably have better things to do then spend time critiquing our fellow FReepers’ grammar.


9 posted on 02/26/2012 11:17:14 AM PST by House Atreides
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