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<< Does the fact that God has preserved His word imply that a particular translation is perfect (absolutely no errors), or, simply inspired (subject to human interpretation fault)? What side of this issue do the KJVist's take? >>

What good would it do to preserve something with errors, or with the inability to distinguish errors from absolute truth?

God said He'd preserve His word (even if He used humans). If it contains errors, you are accusing God of the errors.

Strewn among thousands of mss. makes a mockery of the definition of the word preserved. Preserved implies we can access it and KNOW for CERTAIN what is thus saith the Lord.

Would you want God to preserve your soul in such a haphazard manner?

Read more at:

Bible Page:
http://www.baptistlink.com/godandcountry/html/kjv.0
KJV Inspired?
http://www.baptistlink.com/godandcountry/html/kjv__inspired_.0
Pure and Sure word:
http://www.baptistlink.com/godandcountry/html/pure_and_sure_word_.0

King James Authorized Bible - The King of Books!

First of all, I want to thank each of you for responding and making the issue a little clearer for me. I will continue to look into this issue in the future.

My chief concern has been wether or not the fact that a document is inspired implies that it is perfect. Does the fact that God inspired the translators mean that they were above the error that is prone to the human nature they possessed.

The application of infallibility to the KJV is somewhat puzzling to me because for many years there has been one verse that has always given me a chuckle because, I believe, it is an obvious mistranslation (an error). While I accept the obvious inspiration of the KJV I have a hard time with the concept of infallibility being applied to it. The verse that I have found humor in is Acts 12:4 which reads in the KJV

"And when he had apprehended him, he put [him] in prison, and delivered [him] to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."

What has humored me is the fact that the greek word pascha is incorrectly translated as "Easter" instead of the correct word "Passover". Without going into the history of Easter I believe most of you will agree that it didn't exist as a holiday until much later in Christian history. I haven't seen that translation used in any other Bible and the NKJV has removed the Easter reference and replaced it with Passover.

Now, I have not studied much into this issue and am still forming my position. Currently, I do believe God has preserved his inspired Word for us. However, I'm having trouble accepting the inpiration = infallibility position or that the preservation of God's word stopped with the KJ version.

I'm not trying to be argumentative and my mind is open on the issue so your thoughful responses are greatly appreciated.