If this is accurate, and I personally think it is, then I should have been a literary critic. I, accurately, I think, suggest that Nabakov describes how devastating the relationship became to both subjects, and also very clearly indicates that it was not rape, but passion, that lead to the mutual sexual attraction. I've held this view since I read "Lolita" while in college.
It wasn’t mutual. He imagines and projects all sorts of emotions and motivations on what’s supposed to be a completely ordinary 12 year old.
My interpretation is he was pinning or lusting, which is sick in itself, but never followed through.