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To: Jim 0216
I think the previous state status as a slave-free state could not by operation of law take away the slave-owner’s constitutional property.

The United States Constitution does not enumerate a right to own people as a constitutional certainty. It only refers to a remedy in context to escaped slaves.

102 posted on 02/19/2017 10:05:51 AM PST by rockrr (Everything is different now...)
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To: rockrr

“The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.” U.S. Constitution, Amendment IX.

The Constitution does not have to enumerate a right for it to be a right. The presumption of the Constitution derives from the Declaration of Independence that man is born with God-given rights. A major difference between America and other countries is in America it is acknowledged that our rights are ours inherently and do not come from man or his government.

“The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.” U.S. Constitution, Amendment X.

The Constitution doesn’t delegate rights but powers to the feds. If a power is not enumerated it does not belong to the feds.

Slavery was a states’ issue until the 13th-15th Amendments.


104 posted on 02/19/2017 1:50:20 PM PST by Jim W N
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