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To: ClearCase_guy; PJ-Comix

Maybe S learned it all from the Bible. And used it to his own ends.


9 posted on 04/23/2016 8:38:22 AM PDT by disndat
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To: disndat
Maybe S learned it all from the Bible. And used it to his own ends.

Actually Shakespeare knew the Geneva Bible well and that language made it into the plays. The Geneva language was an important influence on the work of the KJV translators.

15 posted on 04/23/2016 8:44:18 AM PDT by ClearCase_guy (Harvey Dent -- can he be trusted?)
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To: disndat

Some say Shakespeare was involved in the translation. If so, my guess would be John. Certainly not Paul.


35 posted on 04/23/2016 9:00:48 AM PDT by firebrand
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To: disndat
Not the KJV. Most of his plays were wrote before that was done but considering how much of what he wrote referenced the Bible he was definitely well acquainted with the Good Book.
101 posted on 04/23/2016 12:34:05 PM PDT by Harmless Teddy Bear (Proud Infidel, Gun Nut, Religious Fanatic and Freedom Fiend)
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To: disndat
Maybe S learned it all from the Bible. And used it to his own ends.

More likely the other way. The King James Bible was written in the period 1604-1611. Shakespeare's plays started being performed in London around 1592, so it's more likely that Shakespeare served as an example to the KJV writers.

159 posted on 04/24/2016 3:56:26 AM PDT by PapaBear3625 (Big government is attractive to those who think that THEY will be in control of it.)
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