I am not a lawyer and the impression that I got from the article was that the Texas state court overturned the US 10th Circuit. Did I get that right?
And if so, under the supremacy clause, how can a state court overturn a federal court?
Confused... Would someone please explain this to me?
I believe all the courts mentioned are Texas state courts. Ping to one who knows about this.
The Conservative Treehouse has done another good job investigating and explaining Waco Debacle 2.0:
http://theconservativetreehouse.com/2015/10/04/waco-twin-peaks-shooting-update-no-one-charged/
The 10th Court of Appeals mentioned in this article is a Texas State Court, not a federal court. There is no pending federal action in this case, although Clendennen filed a civil rights claim a few months ago, that claim was withdrawn, and according to Clendennen and Broden, will be refiled at a later date.
Texas Court of Criminal Appeals Case WR-83,719-01. That link leads to the filings and case history of the gag order. Texas has two Supreme Courts. One of them is for criminal matters, the other is for civil matters. The Texas Court of Criminal Appeals is the highest court in Texas for criminal cases. Scrolling down, you will see the appellate court for this case was the 10th Court of Appeals, and the trial court (where the gag order was issued) was the 54th District Court.