8 U.S. Code § 1401 implies otherwise:
(d) a person born outside of the United States and its outlying possessions of parents one of whom is a citizen of the United States who has been physically present in the United States or one of its outlying possessions for a continuous period of one year prior to the birth of such person, and the other of whom is a national, but not a citizen of the United States;
I don’t know when it was passed into law, but I see no grandfather clause.
(June 27, 1952, ch. 477, title III, ch. 1, §301, 66 Stat. 235; Pub. L. 89–770, Nov. 6, 1966, 80 Stat. 1322; Pub. L. 92–584, §§1, 3, Oct. 27, 1972, 86 Stat. 1289; Pub. L. 95–432, §§1, 3, Oct. 10, 1978, 92 Stat. 1046; Pub. L. 99–653, §12, Nov. 14, 1986, 100 Stat. 3657; Pub. L. 103–416, title I, §101(a), Oct. 25, 1994, 108 Stat. 4306.)
Subsec. (d). Pub. L. 95–432, §1, struck out subsec. (d) which provided that nothing in former subsec. (b) be construed to alter the citizenship of any person who came into the United States prior to Oct. 27, 1972, and who, whether before or after Oct. 27, 1972, immediately following such coming complied with the physical presence requirements for retention of citizenship specified in former subsec. (b), prior to amendment of former subsec. (b) by Pub. L. 92–584.
Yes the law changed many times. We had to refer to a naturalization chart and would always start the process based of the DOB to apply the prevailing law at the time.
The law changes were never retroactive and for most of our country's history women were treated quite differently when it came to bestowing citizenship.
I think it was in the 1970s when they last changed the law and made women and men's residency requirements the same.