I don’t believe so, because consent may have been given before they were intoxicated. Neither one may be able to tell when they consented or when they were intoxicated by legal definition, and there would be no way to prove it. So it’s probably a moot point.
Furthermore, I don’t know if rape can be prosecuted if nobody is willing to claim they were raped, unless it’s statutory rape. But I’m not sure of the laws on that.
Thank you both for your answers.