Posted on 02/19/2018 12:53:58 PM PST by MosesKnows
Can Congress Legislate Gun Ownership
If ...
If there were no 2nd Amendment would Congress have the enumerated constitutional power to legislate gun ownership?
No, but that hasn’t stopped them on anything else.
No, the right would still belong of the people or the states, and, the Federal Government would ban guns at the Federal level anyway.
No such authority is granted. A point Alexander Hamilton made about any Congressional authority to regulate speech (in Federalist #84.)
It's hilarious!
These absolute ignorant imbeciles actually believe that they can pass a "law" eliminating, or even modifying the Bill of Rights!"
How pathetic is that?
If frogs had wings...
But there IS a 2nd Amendment, and there’s nothing you can do about it.
Our geriatric Supreme Court better take some "conscious" pills, or something...
The Feds buyin up all the ammunition, or taxing it beyond reach , is unquestionably "infringement," to us mere mortals...
Enumerated Powers? Really? The Commerce Clause and General Welfare Clause usurped the Enumerated Powers many, many years ago.
We should not have MOST of the Federal Government in any form, if we held true to the Enumerated Powers in the Constitution.
No Dept of Education
No Dept of Agriculture
No Dept of Energy
and a lot of other agencies, bureaus and bureaucrats.
SO, to answer the question...Yes, given the depth of this damnable swamp, they would certainly make that leap, and they would do it quickly.
Certainly. If the firearm were manufactured in a state different from that of the purchaser it would come under the Interstate Commerce clause. If Congress just decided they wanted to do it and to hell with enumerated powers, that’d be the Necessary and Proper clause. Hamilton was a brilliant man, but his opponents were correct in that with those two provisions any Congress so intent could legislate pretty much anywhere they could stick their collective nose into, and they have.
Probably under both the enumerated powers clause and the 10th Amendment as originally understood, the answer is no. Remember, an Amendment had to be passed to outlaw alcohol on a federal level. But “enlightened” court rulings in the 20th century have expanded Congress’s power to regulate or outlaw virtually anything—even if it doesn’t actually cross state lines, so by current court rulings and legislative practices outlawing firearms would be easy—without the 2nd Amendment.
There is no law they can pass that can interfere with the trajectory of a bullet.
They should think about that.
I visit the tombs of the 9th and 10th Amendments from time to time.
It is interesting how states like California do a “Weekend at Bernie’s” with them when it suits them, even though liberals HATE state’s rght.
According to the US Constitution as written, No, and neither can states but they do and it’s all corrupt.
Obviously, NO. NOT any ENUMERATED power!
Doesn’t matter. They would still try to do so regardless if they had the power to.
“If wishes were horses, beggars would ride.”
You beat me to it.
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