Free Republic
Browse · Search
Bloggers & Personal
Topics · Post Article

To: Edward Teach
Producing children isn't an effective argument, because the homos counter that not all married couples are capable of having children. Is that marriage still valid? What then, they ask. I've yet to hear a good answer.

The guy referred to in the article has the most solid answer, simply that "marriage" means a man and a woman. What the homos want isn't the right to marry, they want the right to redefine what marriage is. That's why it's vitally important to have a pre-PC dictionary, so when they try to pull up some online dictionary definition of "a union between two people", you can slam the book on them, so to speak.

Scouts Out! Cavalry Ho!

13 posted on 07/27/2014 4:10:25 PM PDT by wku man (Veterans, it's up to us to save the Republic...let's roll.)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 7 | View Replies ]


To: wku man

That’s a logical fallacy, I believe called unrepresentative sample. Infertile heterosexual couples are the exception, rather than the rule, whereas two homos can hump each other until kingdom come and that action will NEVER produce offspring.

I do like the definition of a marriage as being a union between a man and a woman, and I’ve also for a long time been arguing that there is no mechanism in place to deny those who engage in homosexuality the right to enter into this union AS IT HAS BEEN DEFINED.


14 posted on 07/27/2014 4:16:20 PM PDT by Edward Teach
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 13 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
Bloggers & Personal
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson