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To: elcid1970
Of course the reason that the Hebrews "despoiled the Egyptians" was as partial payment for their unpaid labor as slaves.

The Egyptians of that day may not have been alive if Joseph had not stored up the grain in advance of the seven years of famine, preventing their ancestors from starving to death.

Joseph was a Hebrew and an Israelite not a Jew since Jews are descended from his brother Judah. He was the Jews' Uncle Joe, much better than the man FDR called Uncle Joe.

58 posted on 02/01/2015 10:40:56 AM PST by Verginius Rufus
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To: Verginius Rufus

Thanks for the clarification of names. I knew they were Hebrews in Egypt, Israelites in the kingdom, but I thought Jews were native to the Land of Judah. But it was Joseph’s brother Judah from whom Jews are descended? Interesting.

That’s right, the ancient Egyptians wouldn’t have survived seven years of famine without Joseph’s providence. Of course it is argued that the only inhabitants of modern Egypt who can claim direct lineage to Pharaonic Egypt are the Copts.

The rest are descended from Arabian Muslim invaders.


59 posted on 02/01/2015 10:48:47 AM PST by elcid1970 ("I: am a radicalized infidel.")
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To: Verginius Rufus

Just to be clear, the term “Jew” has no official status, unless intended to mean of the Tribe of Judah. Officially, the term for a Jew is “son (daughter) of Israel”.

“Jew” in modern usage is a colloquialism.


66 posted on 02/01/2015 11:49:53 AM PST by hlmencken3 (“I paid for an argument, but you’re just contradicting!”)
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