OK, I imagine that there is a Protestant explanation for how this reference to “Scripture,” which is written before some or all of the NT was written and certainly before it was compiled, covers the NT, but, to be honest, the discussions I am involved in here are multiplying, and my ability to explain (knowledge, time, etc.) is being strained, so this may be my last post on this subject. Please don’t take my limited abilities as evidence that the Church lacks explanatory force, simply that *I* am limited.