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In 251 you wrote: You used John 6:39 as your “example” to try to insinuate that somehow that relates to the “church”. Where did you get that? What had Jesus been “given”?

Then, after reading my response in 255 that John 6:35-47 clearly refers to believers, i.e. the church, you wrote in 268:

Who ever said it referred to Jews only?

I would argue Jews are not even in view in John 6:35-47, rather, it is believers in Christ. Who, incidentally, will be raised at the last day. To wit:

John 6:40 For my Father’s will is that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.”

This is all BELIEVERS in Christ, for, as Galatians 3:28 says,

There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.

All of your obsession with the Nation of Israel is moot, for they will only be saved when they believe on Christ. As it is written:

Acts 4:11"He is the stone whcih was rejected by you, the builders, but which became the chief corner stone. 12"And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must be saved."