BOTH of these phrases go together.
If I speak in tongues and other can't interpret what I have said then I'm not speaking in tongues.
The idea of speaking in tongues means LANGUAGE, does it not?
Language means speaking to convey ideas and thoughts. I speak. Another listens. And in doing so, the listener has to understand what I say. Otherwise, there is no communication between the two of us.
God wouldn't have me speaking in gibberish as a freak-show. That wouldn't bring glory to Him. So this is speaking to another to convey a message.
I don't see the controversy, here. I believe it did happen as described in the NT. What am I supposed to be all worried about, Quix?
That may be your personal interpretation and inference.
However, SCRIPTURE DOES NOT SAY THAT!
At most Scripture would say that the person was out of order to speak in tongues PUBLICALLY without and interpreter. !DOH!
And in terms of praying in tongues alone to God, your assertion has no application whatsoever.
That may be your personal interpretation and inference.
However, SCRIPTURE DOES NOT SAY THAT!
At most Scripture would say that the person was out of order to speak in tongues PUBLICALLY without and interpreter. !DOH!
And in terms of praying in tongues alone to God, your assertion has no application whatsoever.