[MarkBsnr]

Oh, is that why He stopped mid-verse? Because Isaiah 61:2 is INCOMPLETE? Wait a minute, it would have to be Luke 4:19 that is INCOMPLETE, wouldn't it? That makes absolutely no sense.

Or maybe there is a real reason He did not finish the verse. Of course there is. Good time to put on your thinking cap.

I'm not getting your drift, here. Jesus claims the mantle that is proclaimed in Isaiah.

[smvoice]

Jesus claims Isaiah's mantle to the point of "To proclaim the acceptable year of the Lord," Is.61:2a.

Jesus does not claim the rest of the verse on that day..and the day of vengeance of our God: to comfort all that mourn." Is.61:2b.

After Jesus quotes "To proclaim the acceptable year of the Lord", He CLOSES the book and sits down. And says " THIS DAY IS THIS SCRIPTURE FULFILLED IN YOUR EARS." Luke 1:21.

"The acceptable year of the Lord" was what was fulfilled "This day". But "and the day of vengeance of our God: to comfort all that mourn." was not part of what was fulfilled that day.

What I'm getting at here is that Christ took one verse of Scripture and divided it. Not one Chapter, or one of several verses, but ONE VERSE. For a reason. He gave part of it, and did not give the other part of it. Why do you think He did that? And does it matter in God's Plan for man, in your opinion?