>> Now was the filled to the brim overflowing grace before the conception or after? <<
Christ died to atone for our sins. If Mary sinned, and those sins were removed before Christ’s death, then the removal of her sins was not a result of Christ’s death, and therefore, his death was not necessary for the removal of her sins. On the other hand, if she was saved from sin BEFORE she could be guilty of it, then she could be sinless WHEN Christ was conceived, not only after his death.
>> Isn’t there a scripture about straining at a gnat....? <<
What exactly are you calling straining at a gnat? You make an assertion that a doctrine isn’t biblical. I use the bible to prove it is. And then when I prove my case, you call my citation of the bible, “straining at a gnat”?
Is it “straining at a gnat” to fulfill the commandment, “All people shall call me blessed”? Is it “straining at a gnat” to defend the Church which Christ founded against slander (the CHURCH, mind you, not those within it who certainly may be evil)? Is it “straining at a gnat” to appreciate that God made one soul so perfect as to permit himself to be formed within her body, blood of her blood, flesh of her flesh?
Christ died to atone for our sins. If Mary sinned, and those sins were removed before Christ’s death, then the removal of her sins was not a result of Christ’s death, and therefore, his death was not necessary for the removal of her sins. On the other hand, if she was saved from sin BEFORE she could be guilty of it, then she could be sinless WHEN Christ was conceived, not only after his death.
It is difficult to determine how the weight of any given Scripture is weighed... And some just have great issue with Paul.. BUT
In a nutshell Paul says in Hebrews 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children (that would include Mary) are partakers of flesh and blood, He (Christ) also Himself likewise took part of the same; THAT through death He might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
Romans 3:23 For ALL have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24 Being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
There is NO Mary Grace and she is NOT exempted from having sinned. To be in a flesh body, allll except Christ have sinned, it was in Him and His grace that 'freely' justified any one of us and that also includes Mary. She did not nor could not received that grace until His death and her death. (well the death of her flesh body when her soul/spirit returned to the Maker, just like the rest of us. Well except for Enoch and Elijah... Mary's flesh died and she was buried....
Now I have read there are traditions that she is buried somewhere in England.... oh I know that one will cause a Mount Vesuvius type eruption.
>> Isn’t there a scripture about straining at a gnat....? <<
What exactly are you calling straining at a gnat? You make an assertion that a doctrine isn’t biblical. I use the bible to prove it is. And then when I prove my case, you call my citation of the bible, “straining at a gnat”? Is it “straining at a gnat” to fulfill the commandment, “All people shall call me blessed”? Is it “straining at a gnat” to defend the Church which Christ founded against slander (the CHURCH, mind you, not those within it who certainly may be evil)? Is it “straining at a gnat” to appreciate that God made one soul so perfect as to permit himself to be formed within her body, blood of her blood, flesh of her flesh?
Exodus 20:2 "I am the LORD thy God, Which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage.
Thou shalt have no other gods before ME.
Elevating by overflowing brimming with grace of another flesh being as sin free makes that being a deity. Christ said He did not come to change one jot or tittle of the LAW, and it changes not one thing to any other child of God's salvation regarding how much grace Mary was filled. Mary does not sit on the throne of God, or beside God on His throne... YES she was blessed and yes she was fillllled with grace or overflowing if need be said. But she is NOT co-saviour.