Really? My bible doesn’t say that not sinning makes someone a deity. What bible are you using? Weren’t you just criticizing people for supporting their own beliefs with weak evidence, while ignoring mountains of evidence to the contrary? What evidence do you have for this bizarre assertion? How is that consistent with sola scriptura?
>> I can’t find any explicit words that said Enoch sinned either, or even for that matter Able. <<
I can’t either. But then, neither of them were called, “Ketocharitoumene,” meaning, “filled to completion with grace.” Nor were they called, “Mother of my LORD,” by one speaking with the Holy Spirit. Nor were they used to symbolize the whole of the Christian church (Rev. 12).
Isn't there a scripture about straining at a gnat....?
Now was the filled to the brim overflowing grace before the conception or after?
I suppose I could heap up a mountain of evidence snipping and clipping here and there words, to prove any thing.
>> Now was the filled to the brim overflowing grace before the conception or after? <<
Christ died to atone for our sins. If Mary sinned, and those sins were removed before Christ’s death, then the removal of her sins was not a result of Christ’s death, and therefore, his death was not necessary for the removal of her sins. On the other hand, if she was saved from sin BEFORE she could be guilty of it, then she could be sinless WHEN Christ was conceived, not only after his death.
>> Isn’t there a scripture about straining at a gnat....? <<
What exactly are you calling straining at a gnat? You make an assertion that a doctrine isn’t biblical. I use the bible to prove it is. And then when I prove my case, you call my citation of the bible, “straining at a gnat”?
Is it “straining at a gnat” to fulfill the commandment, “All people shall call me blessed”? Is it “straining at a gnat” to defend the Church which Christ founded against slander (the CHURCH, mind you, not those within it who certainly may be evil)? Is it “straining at a gnat” to appreciate that God made one soul so perfect as to permit himself to be formed within her body, blood of her blood, flesh of her flesh?
It's not snipping and clipping at all. It is, unlike the quotes people are tossing around here from the Pauline Epistles, directly relevant to the subject at hand.
Dangus is right. Kecharitomene is a perfect tense verb. That means, in Greek, that the action was already completed. What Gabriel calls Mary is something like "The already-having-been-graced one." This passage isn't explicit when that happened--but it's clear it happened before the Angel spoke these words.
Do you think it is purely an accident that the Greek Church calls Mary the "Panagia", the "All Holy"? You think they can't understand their own language?