Wonderful point Brother.
Which is why we have *zero* copies of said Latin bible?
Yet we have Greek manuscripts such as the Codex Vaticanus that are far older? Wouldn’t it make sense that we would have Latin and not Greek bibles if what you say is true?
Why didn’t St. Jerome use them then, and why would the Church undertake a translation project in the 5th century if they had access to such a document? Why didn’t they continue to print this Latin bible?