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>>Now, why would the angel Gabriel use the words, "full of grace" -- doesn't that mean with no sin on one's soul? In other words, being full of grace allows no room for sin. Actually, only sinners (i.e., all mortals) have any need of grace. Someone without sin would have no need of grace. << I will add that a lot of people are trying to read too much into some single words. In the KJV, the word "grace" occurs quite a bit in the old testament. And with strongs number H2580 (chen or חֵן)we get this definition: 1) favour, grace, charm ..a) favour, grace, elegance ..b) favour, acceptance It is also important that before Jesus' birth, there was no "Christianity". The players were Jews. In the new testament, the word translated "grace" is strongs number G5485 (charis or χάρις) and is translated thusly: 1) grace ..a) that which affords joy, pleasure, delight, sweetness, charm, loveliness: grace of speech 2) good will, loving-kindness, favour ..a) of the merciful kindness by which God, exerting his holy influence upon souls, turns them to Christ, keeps, strengthens, increases them in Christian faith, knowledge, affection, and kindles them to the exercise of the Christian virtues 3) what is due to grace ..a) the spiritual condition of one governed by the power of divine grace ..b) the token or proof of grace, benefit ....1) a gift of grace ....2) benefit, bounty 4) thanks, (for benefits, services, favours), recompense, reward Hebrew: http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H2580&t=KJV Greek: http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G5485&t=KJV So saying Mary was "full of Grace" (which I cannot find in the Bible, btw.) does not, by any stretch, mean she was without sin, within the context of the time as well as the message of "grace" as outlined throughout the new testament.