SFA, the Gospels tell us that Jesus prayed. So, was he merely acting? And when he cried out "Why have you forsaken me?", was than an an act as well? Either he had faith or he was acting.
“”SFA, the Gospels tell us that Jesus prayed. So, was he merely acting? And when he cried out “Why have you forsaken me?”, was than an an act as well? Either he had faith or he was acting.””
I see it as not a loss of faith but a typological connection,as did Saint Augustine and some other church Fathers(which I will try and locate again when I find the time)
“Christ bearing humanity,setting a model for us,shows a certain private will,in which He figured both His will and ours,because He is the head and,as you know,as limbs(membra) we attached are attached to Him : Father,He said:”if it can be ,let this cup pass from me”(en. Ps.32.2.1.2.13)”- Saint Augustine
I don't understand, why would He need the supernatural virtue of faith to pray... to speak to His Father? Faith will pass away when we behold the Beatific Vision, will we no longer pray then?
Beyond that, I had a friend who used to be in the IDF who converted to Catholicism in Jerusalem. She once almost offhandedly said, in reference to "why have you forsaken me", "Oh, He was saying tehillim". As if that settled the whole issue... I didn't even know what that meant and every time I thought to ask her she was half the world away.
Oh, and I mentioned that she used to be in the IDF and converted in Jerusalem because she's a she and everything in combination is about the coolest thing ever... what with her having been a Presbyterian from the American South.
Anyhow, I don't fully understand how a Person with two natures and two wills and two intellects functions. I do know that a Divine Person can not have the virtue of Faith because that's like an adult phoning his parents and asking permission to get a drink of water in the middle of the night.