To: OLD REGGIE; MarkBsnr
Mark said "Mark: It was the anti Catholic Council of Jamnia 60 years after Jesus died,"
you made that "anything in 60AD. "
You surely do know that Christ died in 30-33 AD, right? So 30+60 = 90 AD
A Catholic Church is what it was -- the origins of the current Catholic Apostolic Church, from whose orthodoxy all the various Christian groups stem
And, again, you said "The Council of Jamnia compiled the only valid Scripture. The Hebrew Scripture. " " --> And now you say
"In fact I said Hebrew Scripture was the valid Scripture." and "Jesus quoted from Hebrew Scripture frequently but never quoted from the so-called Apocrypha."
1. you said that the Council of Jamnia compiled the only valid scripture
2. You said that the only valid scripture was/is Hebrew Scripture
3. We know that the Council of Jamnia was in 90 Ad and
4. You say that "Jesus quoted from Hebrew Scripture frequenty" even though this was compiled only in 90 AD.
5. You don't even know what did or didn't constitute "Hebrew scripture" during the time of Christ as you acknowledge that this was only compiled in 90 AD.
6. The Septuagint was compiled earlier and there was always a bunch of Hebrew scripture
7. The Council of Jamnia was called at the time when Christianity was decisively moving away from being a Jewish sect to being a competing religion which (under the Paulicians and Marcionites) considered themselves a new break from the Jews and took the position of "God's people" away from (in their, the Council's mind) the Jews
Inconsistencies
5,047 posted on
08/01/2010 1:35:05 PM PDT by
Cronos
(Omnia mutantur, nihil interit. "Allah": Satan's current status)
To: Cronos
Jesus never quoted the “Apocrypha” contained in any of the several Septuagints.
5,070 posted on
08/01/2010 2:03:34 PM PDT by
OLD REGGIE
(I am a Biblical Unitarian?)
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