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I think the source is substituting interpretation for translation

That seems to be unavoidable in just about any translation, at least to some extent. The nature of the language pretty much dictates that.

So Aorist, indicative, middle voice

The mood is infinitive, cyc.

A Catholic might argue the same thing but for quite different reasons.

I lost you there. Why? Acts 13:33; also Heb 1:5, 5:5 has it; also it is found in a Markan variant used at Jesus' baptism. This was the basis for the Adoptionists to argue that Jesus became divine and was an ordinary human prior to that. Catholic theology would reject that, arguing that the Word was eternally begotten of the Father.

Of course a cursory reading of the entire Psalm 2 makes it clear that it has nothing to do with Jesus.

No translator is utterly free of some bias but when “before Abraham” becomes:
“What Yeshua actually meant was, “Before Abraham comes into being (at his resurrection unto eternal life), I will.”,
I think translation has disappeared altogether.

“The mood is infinitive, cyc”

I'm no great student of Greek (I'll save all the trouble of saying that's obvious)’ but why infinitive?

“A Catholic might argue the same thing but for quite different reasons.”

In the Catholic teaching of the trinity there are three persons in one Godhead, Father, Son, Spirit.

So which of the three persons was speaking to Moses at Ex. 3:14?

Father? Son? Spirit? All three? Two out of three?

You see what I'm asking?

I take Ps. 2 as prophetic of the Christ, of Jesus, since I accept that he was the Christ. But if a person doesn't believe any of the Bible is prophetic then even a cursory reading is a waste of time.
Father? So