Who, me? I'm harmless. You should get to know me better!
Posted on 04/11/2007 10:43:02 AM PDT by NYer
Sinless people do not need a Savior. Why would God re-gift Mary if she didn't need it? She received the gift because she needed it due to Original Sin.
Where from the Scriptures can you find that Mary, in specific, was exempt from Original Sin?
Take a look at Paul's letter to the Romans, chapter 5. Paul was a contemporary of Mary, and he's pretty specific about mankind's sin problem and who is under its curse in verse 12 and following. Paul was a contemporary of Mary - they lived in the same time period.
Why wouldn't he make the notation that Mary was exempt from Original Sin? Being exempt from Original Sin is very significant, so why doesn't he mention it? His letter to the Romans goes into great detail about the origin of sin, who is liable (Jews and Gentiles), its consequences and freedom from its effects in this life and the next.
Why wouldn't he note the exception in this exposition of how salvation works?
You better look up “worship” and “reverence” in the dictionary.....HUGE diff.
Alex Murphy and the AdminModerator are anti-Catholics.
Alex is okay, he’s probably going to convert soon.
Here it is!!! The Bible reference is for Jesus’s conception.
No, proof of the Immaculate Conception clearly exists in scripture, going back to Genesis Chapter 3 and it is clearly demonstrated in the Magnificat in Luke.
Who, me? I'm harmless. You should get to know me better!
The admin mod said I can’t say anti-Catholic anymore.
Not my doing. When did this happen? Just since post #43???
I was being a wise a—.
I’m catholic.
Just a cranky one.
Bump for later reading.
I'm on a "no kiss hello" program, like on the Seinfeld episode. LOL!
I guess you’re stuck with being an apostate heretic from now on.
LOL! "Apostate" already, yet I've never been a Catholic!
Go back and read your history books, we can burn anyone we want at the stake!
Are you sure you want to stick with this post, wagglebee?
In one of my earlier posts, I cited Luke 1:47, where Mary says in the Magnificat "and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior". People who need a savior are not sinless. That's the current discussion.
It's been posited that Mary was given salvation in the womb, allowing her to be born sinless.
My current rebuttal is that if that were true, why isn't it anywhere else in Scripture that Mary was exempt from Original Sin, and I cited Paul's letter to the Romans where he goes into great detail in chapter 5:12ff about all of mankind's inclusion in sin's snare. Mary is not mentioned, and Paul was a contemporary of Mary. I also put forth the idea of why would salvation be given to someone/anyone who didn't need it - God would surely not re-gift someone, would He?
So how is Fr. Fessio?
;-o)
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