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To: Salvation
Would The Angel Gabriel call her "full of grace" or some Bibles these days says, "highly favored one" for nothing?

It's a passive participle. Kecharitomene is not what Mary did. It's what she was given from the One who gives grace. A more accurate translation, in my opinion, would be "who has had grace shown to her."

Does it make sense that God would put Jesus, sinless as he was, inside a woman who had sinned? I think not.

Does it make sense that Jesus would become a man, but remain fully God? Nope. Did it anyway. I find your argument as advanced by Catholics to be utterly unconvincing. Why is logic applied in that place when it cannot be applied to the Incarnation at large? If one can't explain how Jesus was fully human and fully God (for just one aspect of the Incarnation), why do we feel the need to explain Mary's state in relation to sin?

1,133 posted on 03/06/2007 8:18:29 PM PST by the808bass
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To: the808bass
If one can't explain how Jesus was fully human and fully God (for just one aspect of the Incarnation)

But we can; Nicaea, Ephesus, and Chalcedon all said some pretty substantial things on the topic.

Of course, in any case, we're explaining a mystery, and (by definition) mysteries cannot be completely explained or understood by created intellect.

1,145 posted on 03/06/2007 8:32:59 PM PST by Campion ("I am so tired of you, liberal church in America" -- Mother Angelica, 1993)
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