To: kosta50; Forest Keeper
Scripturally, the indication is that Mary became pregnant at the time that "The Holy Spirit came upon her" and she was "Overshadowed by the power of the Most High."
It's fairly clear.
1,594 posted on
12/16/2006 5:57:28 AM PST by
xzins
(Retired Army Chaplain and proud of it! Supporting our troops means praying for them to WIN!)
To: xzins
Scripturally, the indication is that Mary became pregnant at the time that "The Holy Spirit came upon her" and she was "Overshadowed by the power of the Most High." You are equating that verse with some sort of divine "sexual" act which is alien to Christianity (although not to polytheistic Mormon cult, for example)
The word "overshadow" is not used in any sexual, or procreative connotation anywhere in the Bible.
1,596 posted on
12/16/2006 6:16:08 AM PST by
kosta50
(Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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