To: blue-duncan; kosta50; Forest Keeper; Kolokotronis; jo kus; annalex; redgolum; xzins
If before, and it was God's plan all along that she was to remain a virgin, then Joseph was defrauded because he didn't find out she was pregnant until after the betrothal and there is no scripture that says he was told she was eternally a virgin. We know that God's plan in general, and so in application to Virgin Mary was from before the foundation of the world. By your logic then Joseph was "defrauded" whether or not he had carnal relation with Mary after Christ's birth. If you consider step fathering the Savior a tort of fraud is up to you, but your argument still doesn't make any scriptural sense.
To: annalex; blue-duncan; Forest Keeper; Kolokotronis; jo kus; redgolum; xzins
annalex to blue-duncan:
If you consider step fathering the Savior a tort of fraud is up to you, but your argument still doesn't make any scriptural sense BD, what do you call God's plan to have David kill his general so that David can marry the general's wife? Premeditated murder?
Can we apply human law to Scripture and judge it? Can we cry "it's not fair?" Can we say it violates "human rights?" I think the absurdity of "lawyering" the Scripture is self-evident; or at least it should be.
1,278 posted on
12/13/2006 5:35:36 AM PST by
kosta50
(Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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