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To: kosta50; jo kus; HarleyD; George W. Bush; Agrarian; annalex; blue-duncan
[On Job being sinless] Eschewing evil pretty much means being sinless. It's actually not that rare: the term "blameless" is also used for Noah (Gen 6:9), Abraham (Gen 17:1) and in Deut. 18:13 "Thou shalt be perfect with the LORD thy God."

Well, are you saying that all these people were sinless like you think Mary was sinless? Is there a large group in that sinless category, headed presumably, by Mary? When you go on to say that God expects us to be sinless, that is, or else what?

Certainly you don't think that we can be alive in Christ if we are not sinless?

"Sinlessness" is in the eye of the beholder. I'm not sure I am clear on one thing. Do the Orthodox make the same distinction between venial and mortal sin as the Catholics?

No, Protestantism is easy because it requires nothing of you other than "Lord, Lord..." Once you accept Christ as your Savior, you are "in" [talk about you deciding rather than God!] and from there on nothing you do will get you "out."

No, EVERYONE here says that all the "Lord, Lord..." people are all toast, so it's not that simple. :) Further, no one becomes a member of the elect by saying the sinner's prayer. All of the elect were members from the beginning, the elect just become aware of what they already had at the point of belief. Finally, God's promises do tell the elect that none of them will be lost or snatched out of the hand of God. Just as the elect were moved to become aware of their election, so they will also be moved to persevere, willingly and lovingly.

It doesn't say that at all. Your interpretation is using Pauline teachings. Christ makes no reference to the "elect," and the Gospels make no reference to +Paul, even though they were written after his Epistles were written.

I was trying to think of how to bring passersby up to speed on what we're talking about here. Then I realized it doesn't matter. I think your statement clarifies for everyone what you think of the inerrancy of the scriptures, and to what degree you think they are inspired.

BTW, why would have any of the Gospels mentioned Paul? The Gospels all ended sometime around the death of Christ. Paul wasn't on the scene yet. Shame on Paul. :)

If you are destined to go into heaven, why would you have to change? Or how could you?

Apparently, in all matters concerning life, both physical and spiritual, our God has instilled the element of growth. I can't tell you why He did, but I can tell you that He did. Change is part of growth when it is directed toward Him. God decided that this is to be part of the human experience for His elect. The actual change itself is accomplished by God for the benefit of His elect.

7,778 posted on 06/05/2006 10:02:59 AM PDT by Forest Keeper
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To: Forest Keeper; HarleyD; George W. Bush; Dr. Eckleburg
"On Job being sinless] Eschewing evil pretty much means being sinless. It's actually not that rare: the term "blameless" is also used for Noah (Gen 6:9), Abraham (Gen 17:1) and in Deut. 18:13 "Thou shalt be perfect with the LORD thy God."

I think I have it now Sheep and goats can be sinless (Lev. 22:21); weights and measures can be sinless (Dt. 25:15); dice can be sinless, but not bingo, I'm sure casinos will rest peacefully knowing this(1 Sam. 14:41); all the men of war were sinless (1Chr. 12:38); all the people of Israel were sinless (1 Chr. 29"9); gold is sinless, I won't tell my wife (2 Chr. 4:21); hatred is sinless (Ps. 139:22); days are sinless (Prov. 4:8); the bud, not THE BUD, the cool one, is sinless (Isa. 18:5) and finally beauty is sinless, that I will tell my wife and get a hot meal tonight (Ezek. 27:3,11,12).

I bet you didn't know how much of creation was not subject to the fall. I especially like that dice thing. All sorts of possibilities open for the church with that, especially if we can pick and choose the definition of perfect and then contextualize or use a "dynamic" translation technique to bring it current.
7,799 posted on 06/05/2006 2:12:49 PM PDT by blue-duncan
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To: Forest Keeper

"Do the Orthodox make the same distinction between venial and mortal sin as the Catholics?"

No, not really. We do view sins on a sort of continuous spectrum, for all practical purposes. There are no categories of sins. Sin is sin, but yet some sins are more dangerous than others.

The difference is this: Catholicism (and indeed the West in general) traditionally looks on sin as something for which payment or punishment is due.

Orthodoxy looks on sin as something that injures ones soul and body, makes us spiritually sick, and puts a wall between us and God of our own making.

Obviously, while sin is sin, some kinds of sins are far more destructive to our souls than others.

Penance in the Catholic approach is a debt owed, and can be categorized and quantified and tallied -- and if not "paid up" at the time of death, that's where purgatory comes in, and indulgences, and all of that.

"Epitimia" in the Orthodox approach have a purely pedagogic function, and in those cases where a priest may bar one from communion for a period of time for a very serious sin, it is not for punishment or payment, but rather with the motivation of protecting the person from injuring himself by taking communion while in a state where one is not prepared.


7,840 posted on 06/05/2006 10:37:05 PM PDT by Agrarian
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