That's interesting, because that is one of Jesus' final commands - to Baptize... If baptism is for the remission of sins, and we die before our sins are remitted, where is our final resting place?
You're right about the command of Jesus, so there is a "rush" after one becomes a believer. I was speaking in the context of infant baptism. ... I do not agree that baptism is for the remission of sins. Baptism, in part, commemorates that occurrence. So, Baptism is a command of Jesus and all believers should be baptized, but our final resting place is in no way directed by whether that one command is followed.
The Church Fathers wrote about Mary being the New Eve, making the connection between Mary and Eve. I have already explained this.
Yes, you have, but I had asked because you said that scriptures support this, and I didn't know where that was in the scriptures.
The only way Paul would know anything about that [Jesus being sinless] is through oral tradition given to him from the Apostles.
I don't know if that would be the only way. Paul says that he received the Gospel directly from Christ, not from any man, so with that kind of access, it is entirely possible that he received this revelation also directly from Christ.
Apparently, Mary wasn't a problem that other communities asked Paul to clarify.
So everyone was SURE that Mary never sinned, but not everyone was sure about Jesus, such that Paul had to mention it??? Does that make sense?
[On FK's 6690] How would YOU read that if you were me? That Mary sinned? No?
I said that I had heard of the example of Cana being used to show that Mary sinned. I said that I could let that "slide" for lack of evidence. Then, in an open and general sense I asked if it was a sin to disbelieve. You know that Protestants do not distinguish between venial and mortal sin, so to us sin is sin. Therefore, there is no sliding in terms of sin. I was letting slide the idea that Cana was an example of Mary's sin. I meant that there was not enough evidence in my mind that Mary sinned at Cana.
Then Peter said unto them, Repent and be baptized each one of you into the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. Acts 2:38
It is through Baptism that we are buried with Christ - and thus, the Blood of Christ washes away our sins... I find your disbelief concerting on this issue, as the Bible clearly points out that Baptism is THE point when we become children of God and enter into a relationship with the Lord.
"For we are buried with him by baptism into death, that just as the Christ was raised up from the dead to the glory of the Father, likewise we also walk in newness of life." Romans 6:4
So, Baptism is a command of Jesus and all believers should be baptized, but our final resting place is in no way directed by whether that one command is followed.
Absolutely speaking, you are correct, a person doesn't even have to even KNOW that Jesus of Nazareth died on the cross for their sins to be potentially saved. However, for those of us who know, you must be baptized. This is how the Spirit comes to men to forgive sins.
Yes, you have, but I had asked because you said that scriptures support this, and I didn't know where that was in the scriptures.
The stock answer is "what Biblical verse says that all Christian beliefs must be written explicitly in the Bible". It is implicit once Paul makes the comparison between Jesus and Adam.
I don't know if that would be the only way. Paul says that he received the Gospel directly from Christ, not from any man, so with that kind of access, it is entirely possible that he received this revelation also directly from Christ.
One could just as easily say that Paul's reception of the Gospel came from Christ through the Apostles. The Gospel, technically, is from God.
So everyone was SURE that Mary never sinned, but not everyone was sure about Jesus, such that Paul had to mention it??? Does that make sense?
Of course! Just like Sola Scriptura makes sense to you!
But seriously, I would think that Mary was the most popular Christian during the Apostolic Age, since she must have had a lot of stories to tell about Christ. I think people would know and respect her very highly. The sinless part probably comes after the first generation.
I said that I had heard of the example of Cana being used to show that Mary sinned. I said that I could let that "slide" for lack of evidence. Then, in an open and general sense I asked if it was a sin to disbelieve. You know that Protestants do not distinguish between venial and mortal sin, so to us sin is sin. Therefore, there is no sliding in terms of sin. I was letting slide the idea that Cana was an example of Mary's sin.
Is this your way of apologizing for realizing that you accused me of misquoting you and were wrong? You said Mary sinned... I quoted you. End of story...
Regards