There is also Roman 5. These describe that only through the sacrifice of Christ that remittance of sin is possible, and it is also true in the case of Mary. The difference is that her potential sin was wiped off before she could commit any. This is not in contradiction to any passage that describes sin in general terms.
What does that have to do with Isaiah?
The difference is that her potential sin was wiped off before she could commit any.
Why, that sound almost Calvinistic. Too bad God doesn't do it for everyone. ;O)
Just a question of interest, do we have a "potential" to sin and if we have a potential to sin, why does God allow us to sin? Did God take away Mary's free will when He took away her potential to sin?
1 John 1:8 ¶If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
1 John 1:10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.
The only person without sin was Jesus Christ.
1 Peter 2:21
For even hereunto were ye called:
because Christ also suffered for us,
leaving us an example,
that ye should follow his steps: 22 Who did no sin,
neither was guile found in his mouth:
23 Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again;
when he suffered, he threatened not;
but committed himself to him that judgeth righteously:
24 Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree,
that we, being dead to sins,
should live unto righteousness:
by whose stripes ye were healed.
25 For ye were as sheep going astray;
but are now returned unto
the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.