So, when pot is decriminalized, it will then be magically 'ok', when it wasn't the day before? And, last time I checked, casino gambling was illegal in quite a few states.
If slavery were legal, would you think it okay to own slaves? Can you make a distinction between LEGAL and MORAL?
Bennett's a MORALIST. Gambling is certainly not a virtue, whether or not it's legal.
Drinking shots of tequila is legal, but drunkenness is cetainly not a virtue, is it? Please try and understand the distinction.
Gambling is certainly not a virtue, whether or not it's legal.
Drinking shots of tequila is legal, but drunkenness is cetainly not a virtue, is it?
These three sentences show the flaw in your argument.
First, by what standard do you deem gambling immoral? Social mores seem to accept gambling in moderation, it is legal where he participates, and there seem to be no objective religious restrictions on the practice. If he participated in gambling where it was illegal, it would then also be immoral (breaking the law, if not the gambling itself.)
Gambling may be not be a virtue, but neither is eating, playing catch with your kids, or reading a good book. Gambling is not a vice unless done to excess.
You demonstrate the ultimate flaw in your logic in the last sentence. Drinking in moderation is not immoral; drinking to excess is. Thus, by your own argument, gambling is not immoral;gabling to excess is. There is nothing in this article to suggest Bennett gambles to excess, based on his personal financial situation.