The vast majority of pedophiles are heterosexual.However, as a group, the percentage of pederasts in the practicing homosexual population is much higher, per capita, than the general population.
Why do you suppose that is?(ANSWER: See #24 above)
(not cheating and looking up whatever was in #24 because it's late and I'm too tired) Because pederasty, by definition, can only be older male on younger male?