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British clergy have doubts about virgin birth
The Telegraph via SMH ^ | December 23 2002

Posted on 12/23/2002 8:02:48 AM PST by dead

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To: Sgt. Fury
The "virgin birth" is actually an old pagan idea that was adopted by the Christians to fulfill prophecy.

Urban legend. There is no evidence that the writers "borrowed" the idea.

61 posted on 12/23/2002 9:48:07 AM PST by AppyPappy
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To: Phantom Lord
Some even say he married and had children

Some say he went on to play shortstop for the Astros too.

62 posted on 12/23/2002 9:49:13 AM PST by AppyPappy
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To: ConsistentLibertarian
Jesus did not pass through Mary's vaginal canal at birth and consequently her hymen remained intact;

Hymen is not necessarily related to virginity. Jesus had brothers and sisters.

63 posted on 12/23/2002 9:51:00 AM PST by AppyPappy
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To: Sacajaweau
If the part about the Three Kings of the Orient smoking rubber cigars is fiction, I'll be greatly disappointed.
64 posted on 12/23/2002 9:54:18 AM PST by Dog Gone
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To: ConsistentLibertarian
Jesus did not pass through Mary's vaginal canal at birth and consequently her hymen remained intact How do they think Jesus was born then? C-sections did not result in a live mother back then and if done, were usually done on a dead woman.
65 posted on 12/23/2002 9:54:33 AM PST by LPStar
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To: pgyanke
You are correct on the point you are making. When I said born out of wedlock, I meant simply that he was not the son of his mother's husband. You are using the definition supplied by state law, which is that any child born to a married woman is born in wedlock, and is presumed to be the son of the husband. It matters not for this issue. It is most likely they were married at the time of the birth. The key point is, Joseph accepted it, which would have been highly unusual in that society unless there had been some reason for him to do so, which points to the type of divine intervention you referenced.
66 posted on 12/23/2002 9:56:17 AM PST by Defiant
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To: AppyPappy
I'm not defending the theses. I'm distinguishing them.
In the late middle ages there were clerics who insisted they had the (perfectly preserved) foreskin removed during the circumcision of Jesus.

Christian fascination with this sort of material has a long history.
67 posted on 12/23/2002 9:56:34 AM PST by ConsistentLibertarian
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To: LPStar
"How do they think Jesus was born then?"

They think it was a miracle.

What did you expect?
68 posted on 12/23/2002 9:58:31 AM PST by ConsistentLibertarian
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To: AppyPappy
Some say he went on to play shortstop for the Astros too.

I haven't seen that one, but the Mormons say he went to England I think.

69 posted on 12/23/2002 9:59:41 AM PST by Protagoras
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To: ThomasJefferson
"He went to Paris
Played the piano
And married an actress named Kim".
70 posted on 12/23/2002 10:01:29 AM PST by AppyPappy
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To: ConsistentLibertarian
Medieval fascinations & fetishes are not the topic of this post...but I see your point trying to paint Christians as banal.

The evidence that a virgin did conceive, and give birth to a man who did many miracles and eventually even raised Himself from the dead--so that all His original followers were willing (and often were) to be tortured to death proclaiming these facts, is there--if you open your eyes.

Millions of lives have been radically changed for the better by accepting these facts. I hope you will be one of them.
71 posted on 12/23/2002 10:13:30 AM PST by AnalogReigns
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To: dead
The Rev Dr Keith Archer, of Salford, said: "It is not particularly important because it is a debatable translation of a Hebrew prophecy which first appeared in Isaiah."

You know, you'd think that something that was important to the first century writers of Matthew and Luke (and to Mary as quoted by Luke) would be important to 21st century people who claim to be Christian.
72 posted on 12/23/2002 10:18:28 AM PST by aruanan
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To: Sgt. Fury
Historically speaking, we will never know if the resurrection occurred or not. The best that can be said is that the early Church would not have grown as quickly as it did if Christ had not been resurrected.

Historically speaking, we have plenty of evidence that the resurrection occurred. I think your problem is that you don't know the definition of "historically speaking". But I see that in the rest of your post you are given to making unwarranted conclusions, so I guess it's not so surprising.
73 posted on 12/23/2002 10:22:41 AM PST by aruanan
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To: Phantom Lord
There are a number of scholars who belive exactly as you have written. That Jesus did not die on the cross and was alive when he was taken down and 'left town'. Some even say he married and had children. And his wife... Mary Magdalin.

And lots of people have made their living writing fantasies, of which the above is but another having not the slightest historical corroboration.
74 posted on 12/23/2002 10:25:32 AM PST by aruanan
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To: ConsistentLibertarian
Three theses: (1) Mary did not have intercourse with any human being before giving birth to Jesus; (2) Jesus did not pass through Mary's vaginal canal at birth and consequently her hymen remained intact; (3) Mary never had intercourse with anyone after the birth of Jesus. All three have been affirmed by (some) Christians for centuries. But I take it that the point at issue here is thesis (2), not (1). Although it's hard to tell since people aren't always precise about making the distinction.

If you, like some of these Christians for centuries, would simply read the accounts, you'd see that 1. is unambiguously claimed, that 2. comes as a result of the doctrine of the perpetual virginity of Mary, something not found in the canon of the New Testament, and that 3. is specifically denied by the same New Testament documents that state that although Joseph didn't have intercourse with Mary before the birth of Jesus he did have intercourse afterwards.
75 posted on 12/23/2002 10:31:42 AM PST by aruanan
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To: AnalogReigns
The topic is the virgin birth of Jesus. Three different claims go by that description. I distinguished them above. That's all.

There's a latin ditty that sums up the view: "virginitas ante partum, virginitas in partu, virginitas post partum".

It's hard to tell, but I take it that the British Clergy are doubting the "in partu" clause whereas people here want to defend the "ante partum" line.
76 posted on 12/23/2002 10:33:23 AM PST by ConsistentLibertarian
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To: Fudd
Keep in mind also that people in the days of Jesus were far, far more familiar with death than is the general populace today. Their testimony as to whether or not someone was actually dead was far more trustworthy than that of a member of the general American public today.
77 posted on 12/23/2002 10:34:30 AM PST by aruanan
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To: dead
I need to keep the job I have got

Boy, what more needs to be said ?

78 posted on 12/23/2002 10:35:51 AM PST by MassExodus
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To: aruanan
Case in point. You accept (1) and reject (2) and (3).

Was it clear to you that the British Clergy were rejecting (1) rather than (2)?
79 posted on 12/23/2002 10:37:16 AM PST by ConsistentLibertarian
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To: ConsistentLibertarian
There's a latin ditty that sums up the view: "virginitas ante partum, virginitas in partu, virginitas post partum".

Having a baby miraculously conceived doesn't confer non-virginity any more than would breaking the hymen through birth confer non-virginity. It isn't the presence of a hymen that defines virginity, but the not having had sexual intercourse. As far as the virginitas post partum is concerned: "When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife. But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son." Matthew 1:24-25
80 posted on 12/23/2002 10:38:48 AM PST by aruanan
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