From this Jewish perspective, I am astounded by this information, astounded by the fact that scholars in the Talmudic era would have even thought about the perverse idea of what currently would be called "gay marriage" and mention it. Does this mean that they knew that "gay marriage" was sanctioned in some (uncivilized) societies at the time? Also, why didn't the Talmud writers have an explicit position against a formal union of two lesbians?
It says that this perversion was done in Ancient Egypt as well as right before the flood. Torah and rabbinic writings lay the groundwork for the permissibility or lack thereof of very modern inventions as well. G-d’s will is eternal and complete.
As to two women, it is considered a)immodest and improper b) part of the prohibition of the law against “going in the ways of Egypt,” etc. The Talmud does extol the virtue of morality, and specifically of modesty and of staying away from things that cause one to go astray, but it recognizes that there is a difference in the level of prohibition (or at the very least strong condemnation of the idea). In one case there’s no actual union and just bad behavior. Among men, the same can’t be said and any insertion anywhere is a sin that one is commanded to give their lives not to do.
Despite Christian claims to the contrary, there is a sharp distinction made by Jewish traditional teaching between Biblical prohibitions such as a man with a man, which merits the death penalty, and Rabbinic prohibitions such as a woman with a woman, for which there is no Biblical penalty attached, but which nevertheless is a sin and prohibited.
The Ein Yaakov (compilation from the Talmud) mentions that a culture that recognizes marriage contracts between men does not merit to exist.
Cannibalism: It should be noted that the actual language indicates a prohibition of the sale of human flesh, touching on today’s medical ethics.