I have to ask. If the decision making process is removed from the responsibility of the DOCTOR, and placed in the hands of a government facilitator, how could the DOCTOR be sued for the results of decision he DID NOT MAKE?
If a DOCTOR, on the stand, repeatedly states that he did NOT agree with the government decision maker, and the government decisions are what killed the patient, how would the DOCTOR be held responsible?
If I was a tort lawyer, I’d be terrified at the idea of having the government “health care” REMOVE my one and only target.
Who will pay the doctor’s malpractice. As I understand it...doctors would be employee’s of the gov’t?