Why?
Scripture predicted the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.
Did that preclude ANOTHER destruction of Judea and Jerusalem in 135 A.D. after the Bar Kochba Revolt?
What specific Scripture are you relying on to claim that the SPECIFIC geopolitical "State of Israel" formed in 1948 is the SPECIFIC "Israel" that will be in existence at the End Times?
It would appear that we
share insufficient
common experience and insufficient common dictionary
to have a very meaningful dialogue.
Cheers.