Looks as if Damasus didn't understand that there is no part of the OT which was not given by the prophets. That the apocryphal books were not written by the prophets are clear and certain. All confess that Malachi was the last Jewish prophet. Between Malachi and John the Baptist, no other Jewish prophet arose, but the writers of the apocryphal books lived after Malachi.
It is significant that the Council of Trent was the response of the Roman Catholic Church to the teachings of Martin Luther and the rapidly spreading Protestant Reformation, and the fact that the books of the Apocrypha contain support for the Roman Catholic Church's teaching of prayers for the dead and the justification by faith plus works, not by faith alone.
In spite of the fact that even Cardinal Cajetan, himself, Luther's famous opponent, rejected the canonicity of the Apocrypha, in 1546, at the time they affirmed the Apocrypha to be within the canon, the Roman Catholic Church said that they had the authority to constitute A LITERARY WORK to be "Scripture". ..." Wayne Grudem [paraphrased from Systematic Theology-Zondervan] See #246
The fact that these books were included by Jerome in his Latin Vulgate translation of the Bible (completed in A.D. 404) gave support to their inclusion, EVEN THOUGH JEROME HIMSELF SAID THEY WERE NOT "BOOKS OF THE CANON", but merely "books of the church" that were helpful and useful for believers.
The earliest Christian list of OT books that exists today is by Melito, bishop of Sardis, writing about A.D. 170. It is noteworthy that Melito names none of the books of the Apocrypha, but he includes all of our present Old Testament books except Esther.
Eusebius also quotes Origen as affirming most of the books of our present Old Testament canon (including Esther), but no book of the Apocrypha is affirmed as cononical, and the books of Maccabees are EXPLICITLY said to be "OUTSIDE OF THESE (canonical books]" ~ Ecclesiastical History 6.15.2 (Origen DIED about A.D. 254).
These books were never accepted by the Jews as Scripture.... but the use of the Apocrypha gradually increased in some parts of the church UNTIL the time of the Reformation.
Then what of the inclusion of these texts in the original King James Bible?