[Noachian]

Is it interference by the government to prohibit discrimination based on race?

Look at post #34

Yes. Definitely. Absolutely. Want me to go on?

Logic should tell you that you can't avoid discrimination of one race by discriminating against another race.

At the moment the government tells a white owner he can't discriminate against his customers, the government has automatically discriminated against the white owner.

It may be called "Reverse discrimination", but it's still discrimination. All the government has done is substitute one racial preference for another.

You can't get away from discrimination no matter how many laws are passed. Somebody has to lose.

[ClintonBeGone]

It may be called "Reverse discrimination", but it's still discrimination. All the government has done is substitute one racial preference for another.

how is it discrimination for the government to tell people of ALL races you can't discriminate against people by virtue of their race?