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To: RnMomof7; lockeliberty; Calvinist_Dark_Lord; Matchett-PI; Seven_0; fortheDeclaration
I tend to believe that Gods anger was before the actual event..probably as He planned creation..that does not make it any less real or less a threat to the people involved..BUT ..He made a resolution to his anger (much like one of us telling our misbehaving kid they can come out of their room if they say sorry)..He resolved the anger by foreordaining the desire to pray by Moses..

Maybe what I am struggling with here is the difference between foreknowledge of a specific event and foreordination of a specific event. Which is why, IMHO, this discussion about the Book of Numbers is not comparable to any discussion of Christ's death on the cross. Christ, the sinless Lamb, HAD to be slain as an offering; the price HAD to be paid. Moses, however, did not HAVE to enter Canaan (indeed, he did not). But, my question is, when the LORD chose Moses, did He know that Moses would strike the rock twice, thus incurring God's wrath and preventing Moses from entering Canaan.

But ineffect you are..If God had destroyed the nation of Israel then the entire plan of Salvation would have had to be changed..

"and do not suppose that you can say to yourselves, 'We have Abraham for our father; for I say to you, that God is able from these stones to raise up children to Abraham." Matt. 3:9

I think that if God had indeed destroyed the nation of Israel, somehow He would have figured out a way to still make the plan of Salvation work.

Pony this was all about God's glory at this point..those that had no faith in Him and were not obedient were not to occupy the land...PERIOD..

Well, no, I think it ends up with God's glory, but it starts with choice, doesn't it? When that generation of Israelites left Egypt, did they or did they not have the opportunity to inherit the land of Canaan? If not, was it because God foreknew they would not or is it because God foreordained they could not?

206 posted on 02/13/2003 3:05:05 PM PST by ponyespresso (I know that my Redeemer lives)
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To: ponyespresso
Maybe what I am struggling with here is the difference between foreknowledge of a specific event and foreordination of a specific event. Which is why, IMHO, this discussion about the Book of Numbers is not comparable to any discussion of Christ's death on the cross. Christ, the sinless Lamb, HAD to be slain as an offering; the price HAD to be paid. Moses, however, did not HAVE to enter Canaan (indeed, he did not). But, my question is, when the LORD chose Moses, did He know that Moses would strike the rock twice, thus incurring God's wrath and preventing Moses from entering Canaan.

Did God foreknow that Moses would not enter and Joshua would? I suggest you look to the name and the typeology of Joshua

207 posted on 02/13/2003 3:19:10 PM PST by RnMomof7
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To: ponyespresso
"and do not suppose that you can say to yourselves, 'We have Abraham for our father; for I say to you, that God is able from these stones to raise up children to Abraham." Matt. 3:9

What tribe was Moses from? What tribe was Joshua from? Do either meet the prophecies?

That question is not was God able ..the question was WHAT DID GOD WILL?

Did either meet the plan laid before the foundation of the earth?

I will ask you again pony...If God is not immutible in His decisions..If God changes His mind ..what assurance do you have that your salvation is secure..could it be He will "change the plan" and you will not "fit"

209 posted on 02/13/2003 3:25:15 PM PST by RnMomof7
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