"For, if we speak properly, there is no such thing as either foreknowledge or afterknowledge in God."
My Bible says "Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father"
Or is the Bible not speaking "properly"??
No, the Bible is speaking very clearly. What Wesley was pointing out that for God, there is no foreknowledge since all knowledge is at once.
The Bible puts it in a logical sequence so we can make sense of God's Omniscience.
All time, or rather all eternity, (for the children of men,) being present to him at once, he does not know one thing in one point of view from everlasting to everlasting.
As all time, with everything that exists therein, is present with him at once, so he sees at once, whatever was is, or will be, to the end of time