"I have already shared 1Cor 2:2 and Gal 2:20 as concrete examples of how the Apostle Paul continually and daily lived the crucifixion of Jesus Christ as a present reality (not a past remembrance).
I have already responded to this and pointed out that neither verse demonstrates that "Paul continually and daily lived the crucifixion of Jesus Christ as a present reality." Paul focused on teaching the crucifixion, death and resurrection of Christ in his ministry - in other words, the Gospel. In these cases, you are reading an idea back into a passage.
"The phrase translated in English “as it had been slain” is confusing because it doesn’t adequately reflect the morphological analysis of the greek. The proper translation should reflect a continual state of being. The same verb (sphazo) “slain” is used 3 verses later in verse 9. The morphological analysis of the Aorist tense in the greek in Rev 5:9 properly shows an event that has occured in the past (thou wast slain). So the more proper translation (of the perfect tense) in verse 6 would use “being” instead of “been”."
Again, I will disagree. What is being said is that John in his vision saw Christ as a Lamb that bore the marks of having been slain in the past with continuing result. He stands, not crucified in heaven, but represented as a lamb that had been slain. He stands in the center of heaven. His sacrifice is the center of God's redemptive plan.John does not stop there. This same Lamb that was sacrificed is portrayed as powerful and omniscient. His sacrifice led to his exaltation and glorification.
The whole story is pictured in Revelation 5:6 - not just the sacrifice. Nor is He seen by John in his vision as crucified any longer. The Lamb (Christ) is shown as having been crucified. His sacrifice is once for all. The result of His payment for sin continues for eternity and leads to his power and exaltation.
“Worthy is the Lamb, who was slain, to receive power and wealth and wisdom and strength and honor and glory and praise!”
Indeed!
I posted: I have already shared 1Cor 2:2 and Gal 2:20 as concrete examples of how the Apostle Paul continually and daily lived the crucifixion of Jesus Christ as a present reality (not a past remembrance).
aMorePerfectUnion posted: I have already responded to this and pointed out that neither verse demonstrates that "Paul continually and daily lived the crucifixion of Jesus Christ as a present reality." Paul focused on teaching the crucifixion, death and resurrection of Christ in his ministry - in other words, the Gospel. In these cases, you are reading an idea back into a passage.
It seems you are saying that Paul just taught these scriptures as some sort of theoretical gospel of a past experience he had, and didn't live or practice this gospel as a regular part of his daily life. I disagree. In 1Cor 15:31 ...I die daily. In Gal 2:20 I am crucified with Christ... In 1Cor 2:2 I choose to know nothing but Christ...crucified. In Phil 3:10 That I may know Him,...and the fellowship of His sufferings, being made conformable to His death. I believe that these are not some metaphysical, cloud in the sky, theoretical, unattainable experiences. No sir. These are real and present experiences to be had by the believer at the feet of Jesus at Calvary daily.
Also, by no means do I discount the balance to the scales. That being--the glorious resurrection into new life which is found in Jesus Christ as well. I am emphasizing these crucifixion experiences for the sake of this discussion. And emphasizing them to point out the great sin of the Evangelical Christian doctrine--the rejection of identifying with the crucifixion of Jesus Christ as a daily worship experience.
I posted: The phrase translated in English “as it had been slain” is confusing because it doesn’t adequately reflect the morphological analysis of the greek. The proper translation should reflect a continual state of being. The same verb (sphazo) “slain” is used 3 verses later in verse 9. The morphological analysis of the Aorist tense in the greek in Rev 5:9 properly shows an event that has occured in the past (thou wast slain). So the more proper translation (of the perfect tense) in verse 6 would use “being” instead of “been”."
aMorePerfectUnion replied: Again, I will disagree. What is being said is that John in his vision saw Christ as a Lamb that bore the marks of having been slain in the past with continuing result.
Ok, "having been slain in the past with continuing result" would be written differently (with different tense) in the greek. It certainly would not be written in the perfect tense, as is the case in Rev 5:6. So we have a dilemma. Either the tense of the verb "slain" is incorrectly written in the original manuscript, or your opinion of the event is incorrect.
I'll side with the original manuscript.