Replies

“Take your insinuations and stuff them.”

If you had simply posted the source, I wouldn’t have had to ask for it. Anti-Catholics lie. I’ve caught them at it before. If you don’t like that, too bad.

“You DO realize “Deuterocanonical” was a word invented AFTER Trent,”

Trent ended in 1565. Some people claim the word deuterocanonical was first used in 1566. The point is why would Trent use the word Apocrypha if it didn’t believe those books were Apocrypha?

“...because Trent left out a few passages that had been accepted as part of the Apocrypha for 1000 years prior. When they realized they had screwed up their list, they had to invent a new word to describe the part of the Apocrypha they HAD remembered to list.”

Oh, please post a source for that claim - a reputable source.

“And even Trent did not answer the question about using the Apocrypha, now shrunk down a little to the “Deuterocanonical” (word invented in 1566), books for doctrine:”

That’s certainly not a complete view of Jedin’s info on the subject. Why aren’t you posting for people where you got this? Have you got a copy of the book or did you merely cut and paste it from here: http://beggarsallreformation.blogspot.com/2010/05/carries-semi-authoritative-catholic.html

“Anti-Catholics lie.”

So do Catholics. And Catholics do not like to admit that the Apocrypha was not considered useful for doctrine by many leading Catholic theologians until Trent, and technically even Trent didn’t answer that question.

Since Protestants believe “All [notice ALL] Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness...”, we reject the idea that scripture can be useless for doctrine.

The Decree Concerning the Canonical Scriptures was at the 4th Session of Trent in 1546. Twenty years passed before the term “Deuterocanonical” was invented and replaced “Apocrypha” in Roman Catholic usage. Why?

“After the Reformation, when the Catholic Church strove to counter the attacks and refute the doctrines of Protestantism, the Vulgate was reaffirmed in the Council of Trent as the sole, authorized Latin text of the Bible...

...The Sixtine edition was soon replaced by Clement VIII (1592–1605)...

The Clementine differed from the manuscripts on which it was ultimately based in that it grouped the various prefaces of St. Jerome together at the beginning, and it removed 3 and 4 Esdras and the Prayer of Manasses from the Old Testament and placed them as Apocrypha into an appendix following the New Testament.

The Psalter of the Clementine Vulgate, like that of almost all earlier printed editions, is the Gallicanum, omitting Psalm 151. It follows the Greek numbering of the Psalms, which differs from that in versions translated directly from the Hebrew.

The Clementine Vulgate of 1592 became the standard Bible text of the Roman Rite of the Roman Catholic Church until 1979, when the Nova Vulgata was promulgated.”

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vulgate#Clementine_Vulgate

Notice: Done in response to the Council of Trent, 4th session, 1546, the Clementine Vulgate “removed 3 and 4 Esdras and the Prayer of Manasses from the Old Testament and placed them as Apocrypha into an appendix following the New Testament.”

So what word would distinguish the “Apocrypha”, used for 1000 years, from the list Trent approved? Thus the word “Deuterocanonical” was invented to describe those passages that were listed by Trent, in contrast to the Apocrypha that had been accepted by the Catholic church for edification, at least, for many centuries.

And in rejecting the Apocrypha and/or Deuterocanonical books as being authoritative for doctrine, we are merely doing what many in the Catholic Church did from the time of Jerome, and which the Catholic Church still allows - although the Catholic Church believes a canonical book can be one that is good for edification, but not doctrine...a stance the Apostles would have been confused by.