You wrote:
“As I have pointed out, the Catholic Church objected to vernacular translation.”
Actually no such thing happened and you presented no evidence it did.
“Not because they were bad translations, but because commoners could understand it when read.”
Again, false. You presented no such evidence either.
As I have pointed out, the Catholic Church objected to vernacular translation.
Actually no such thing happened and you presented no evidence it did.
Posts 68 & 69. It was a matter of policy. If you wish to explain away the policy, have a nut - but don’t pretend it didn’t exist.